3/12/11
Thoughts on Hebrews 1:1-9 – Creator or Created?
There are at least five places in this section that give possible indication that Christ has been created. This impression, even if it is misguided, is based in part on Christ being raised in rank to a higher position than he once had. The places I draw your attention to is first found in verse 2, “whom he appointed”; verse 4, “he has inherited”; verse 5, “today I have begotten you”; verse 6, “the firstborn”; and verse 9, “God, has anointed you”. But I intend to show that these inferences are incorrect. For we read in several verses a contrary notion; verses such as 1:2, 1:3, 1:8, 1:9 and 1:10 that exalt Christ as the omniscient and omnipotent One. For instance 1:2 mentions that God created the world through the Son; 1:3 states that the Son is the exact imprint of His nature and 1:8 calls the Son, God. So if these are also true how might we correctly interpret the former passages? Let us first look at the “positional” ones.
1:2, 4 and 9 mentions that God appointed, anointed and made Christ heir of all things. But in order to understand these passages we must put them into the proper context of Christ’s humanity, not his divine position which he held previous to his human birth, but the work which was accomplished, through his death, necessary to save humanity. So 1:2 talks about the fact that the Son was appointed the heir of all things by virtue of the satisfaction of God’s wrath on sin. Christ paid for it with his death and so filled all the earth with his glory (Ephesians 4:9, 10; Philippians 2:9, 10). These two references speak precisely of both his appointment and his inheritance (1:4). 1:9 speaks to the fact that the Son was appointed to perform this great task. Through Him God would hold the whole world accountable even those sins that were previously passed over (Romans 3:25) and this would result in the whole world being the inheritance of Christ instead of being in the throes of Satan. The world is what Christ conquered for the Father and this resulted in all things being put under his feet. He is King of kings and Lord of lords truly.
Now how are we to understand 1:5 and 6? Does “begotten” and “firstborn” imply, in this context, previously not existing? Was there a point in time where Christ did not exist? The answer is no, as it pertains to his divine nature, but yes, as it pertains to his human nature. I think it would be safe to say that Christ was the firstborn over all in the sense that it was only he, in his human capacity, that lived the law perfectly. So in this sense he was firstborn; preeminent by virtue that he was able to accomplish, in his human nature, what no one was ever able to do and be the final, ending sacrifice for sins. He asked the teachers of the law one time, “who of you can accuse me of sin?” The fact is no one could because he did not sin, neither was sin found in him (1 Peter 2:22, 1 John 3:5). He was “God begotten” which speaks of his divine nature while still in human form.
No, what we have in this marvelous chapter is the revealing of Christ in both his divine capacity and his human nature necessary in order to wrest the world from the clutches of Satan who caused mankind to be ensnared by wickedness. There was no rescue or hope for us until Christ came and dwelt among us and consequently perishing for our great sin on the cross; our grave violation of God’s law.
1 comment:
Joe,
Very good. Firstborn (positionally) is also a reference to rights in inheritance (see Eph 1).
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